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Practice Questions (Sample)

A small sample of EPPP-style practice questions across domains. Answers are included under each question.

1 Biological Bases of Behavior

What is the cerebral cortex and how many lobes does each hemisphere contain?
- A. Inner brain layer; two lobes
- B. Outer brain layer; four lobes
- C. White matter; six lobes
- D. Brainstem region; eight lobes
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Answer: B
Explanation: The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain, divided into right and left hemispheres, with each hemisphere containing frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes.
Where is Broca's area located and what language disorder results from damage?
- A. Dominant temporal lobe; receptive aphasia
- B. Dominant frontal lobe; expressive aphasia
- C. Nondominant parietal lobe; conduction aphasia
- D. Right occipital lobe; visual-verbal agnosia
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Answer: B
Explanation: Broca's area is in the dominant (usually left) frontal lobe. Damage produces Broca's aphasia (expressive aphasia), causing slow, labored speech with preserved comprehension.
Which prefrontal cortex region is primarily responsible for executive functions?
- A. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
- B. Orbitofrontal cortex
- C. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
- D. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
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Answer: C
Explanation: The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) contributes most to executive functions including planning, decision-making, and working memory.

2 3 5 6 Organizational Psychology

Which individual difference has been linked to higher job satisfaction and life satisfaction?
- A. Low self-esteem
- B. High self-esteem
- C. Introversion
- D. Type A behavior
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Answer: B
Explanation: Higher self-esteem is associated with higher job and life satisfaction per Judge et al. (1998).
About what percentage of variability in job satisfaction scores did twin research attribute to genetic factors?
- A. 5%
- B. 15%
- C. 30%
- D. 60%
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Answer: C
Explanation: Arvey et al. estimated that roughly 30% of satisfaction variability is due to genetic predisposition.
Which type of organizational justice concerns the fairness of procedures used to determine outcomes?
- A. Distributive justice
- B. Procedural justice
- C. Interactional justice
- D. Informational justice
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Answer: B
Explanation: Procedural justice addresses fairness of decision processes, whereas distributive covers outcomes and interactional covers communications.

2 Cognitive-Affective Bases : Learning and Memory

In Pavlov's original studies, which stimulus automatically elicited salivation before any conditioning?
- A. Ringing bell
- B. Flashing light
- C. Meat powder
- D. Footsteps
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Answer: C
Explanation: The meat powder was the unconditioned stimulus (US) because it naturally produced the unconditioned response of salivation in the dogs without prior learning.
According to Pavlov's findings, how does the magnitude of the conditioned response compare to the unconditioned response?
- A. It is always equal to the UR
- B. It is greater than the UR
- C. It is always less than the UR
- D. It alternates randomly
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Answer: C
Explanation: Pavlov noted that the conditioned response (CR) is consistently smaller in magnitude than the unconditioned response (UR) even after repeated pairings.
Which conditioning procedure produces acquisition most efficiently?
- A. Trace conditioning
- B. Simultaneous conditioning
- C. Delay conditioning
- D. Backward conditioning
Show answer
Answer: C
Explanation: Delay conditioning, in which the CS begins just before and overlaps the US, yields the strongest and fastest conditioning according to the reference.

3 Cultural Psychology

What is identity development?
- A. Creating new identities constantly
- B. Process of forming sense of self and group membership
- C. Personality traits only
- D. Fixed at birth
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Answer: B
Explanation: Identity development: ongoing process of forming sense of self, including cultural/ethnic identity.
What are Erikson's stages of identity development?
- A. Only childhood stages
- B. Eight psychosocial stages from infancy to old age
- C. Four personality types
- D. No stages exist
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Answer: B
Explanation: Erikson: eight psychosocial stages from infancy to old age; identity development primary in adolescence.
How does Marcia's identity status theory extend Erikson's stage of identity vs. role confusion?
- A. It replaces psychosocial stages with biological maturation only
- B. It operationalizes exploration and commitment into four statuses
- C. It removes the concept of exploration altogether
- D. It classifies identity based solely on temperament traits
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Answer: B
Explanation: Marcia took Erikson's idea of an adolescent identity crisis and specified four statuses based on whether an individual has explored options and committed to values.

3 Social Psychology

What is affiliation need?
- A. Need to be alone
- B. Desire for companionship and social connection
- C. Professional networking only
- D. Family relationships only
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Answer: B
Explanation: Affiliation need is the desire for companionship, social connection, and belonging with other people.
What is the mere exposure effect in attraction?
- A. Avoiding familiar people
- B. Increased liking with repeated exposure to stimuli
- C. Physical exposure to sunlight
- D. Revealing personal information
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Answer: B
Explanation: Mere exposure effect: repeated exposure to stimuli increases liking and attraction, even without explicit interaction.
How do physical attractiveness standards vary across cultures?
- A. Beauty standards are identical everywhere
- B. Physical attractiveness varies culturally based on socialization
- C. Beauty is purely genetic
- D. Culture doesn't influence attraction
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Answer: B
Explanation: Physical attractiveness standards vary across cultures, reflecting cultural values and socialization rather than being universal.

4 Growth & Lifespan Development

What is Piaget's first stage of cognitive development?
- A. Preoperational stage
- B. Sensorimotor stage
- C. Concrete operational stage
- D. Formal operational stage
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Answer: B
Explanation: Piaget's sensorimotor stage spans infancy to approximately 2 years and involves learning through sensory and motor exploration.
What does object permanence refer to in cognitive development?
- A. The ability to walk
- B. Understanding that objects exist even when not visible
- C. Ability to count objects
- D. Recognition of colors
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Answer: B
Explanation: Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when not visible or in mind.
What is the key characteristic of preoperational thinking?
- A. Ability to perform logical operations
- B. Egocentrism and lack of conservation
- C. Abstract reasoning
- D. Understanding of reversibility
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Answer: B
Explanation: Preoperational stage (ages 2-7) is characterized by egocentrism and lack of conservation of mass, volume, and number.

5 Assessment

What is the primary purpose of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery?
- A. Diagnosing personality disorders
- B. Estimating the severity and nature of brain damage
- C. Measuring academic achievement
- D. Screening for mood disorders
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Answer: B
Explanation: The Halstead-Reitan is administered to gauge the severity and character of brain dysfunction stemming from conditions like TBI or neurocognitive disorders.
On the Halstead Impairment Index, which range signals moderate impairment?
- A. 0 to 0.2
- B. 0.3 to 0.4
- C. 0.5 to 0.7
- D. 0.8 to 1.0
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Answer: C
Explanation: An index of 0.5 to 0.7 indicates moderate impairment; lower scores reflect normal or mild deficits and higher scores severe impairment.
The Halstead-Reitan battery has age-based versions covering which span?
- A. Birth through age 12
- B. Ages 5 through adulthood
- C. Only ages 16 and older
- D. Only school-age children
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Answer: B
Explanation: Separate versions exist for ages 5–8, 9–14, and 15 and older, ensuring coverage from early childhood to adulthood.

5 Diagnosis : Psychopathology

Which factor is a documented risk for developing an anxiety disorder?
- A. Behavioral inhibition temperament
- B. High frustration tolerance
- C. Secure attachment history overall
- D. Stable low neuroticism overall
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Answer: A
Explanation: Children with behavioral inhibition or anxious parents are nearly twice as likely to develop anxiety problems.
Separation anxiety disorder in school-age youth requires symptoms lasting at least how long?
- A. Two consecutive weeks
- B. Four consecutive weeks
- C. Nine consecutive months
- D. One consecutive year
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Answer: B
Explanation: DSM-5-TR requires a minimum duration of four weeks in children and adolescents (six months in adults).
Which presentation best illustrates school refusal linked to separation anxiety disorder?
- A. Child pleads, reports nausea, and stays near caregivers
- B. Child attends yet reports boredom in class overall
- C. Child eagerly joins overnight field trips overall overall
- D. Child insists on joining every club overall overall
Show answer
Answer: A
Explanation: School refusal often involves somatic complaints and intense attempts to remain with attachment figures.

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